Given that X,Y,Z are pairwise independent, does it follow that X,Y,Z are jointly independent?
In order words, does P(x,y) = P(x)P(y), P(y,z) = P(y)P(z), P(x,z) = P(x)P(z) imply P(x,y,z) = P(x)P(y)P(z)?
In order words, does P(x,y) = P(x)P(y), P(y,z) = P(y)P(z), P(x,z) = P(x)P(z) imply P(x,y,z) = P(x)P(y)P(z)?
(no subject)
Date: 2009-05-06 09:46 am (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 2009-05-06 09:51 am (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 2009-05-06 12:29 pm (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 2009-05-06 02:49 pm (UTC)I realized you can do something simpler: let x1, x1, ..., xn each be (uniform) random bits, and let xn+1 be the parity of those bits. Then the xis will be n-wise independent, but not (n+1)-wise. This is basically the same example, just reimagined over F2 instead of some larger Fp. More generally, let V be vector space over a finite field F of dimension n+1. Let S be an n dimensional subspace of V, and B be a basis for V which is disjoint from S. Now if we pick a random vector v in S uniformly, the B-coordinates of v are n-wise independent but not (n+1)-wise independent.
(no subject)
Date: 2009-05-06 08:59 pm (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 2009-05-06 10:03 pm (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 2009-05-06 10:03 pm (UTC)000 .25
001 0
010 0
011 .25
100 0
101 .25
110 .25
111 0
(no subject)
Date: 2009-05-06 03:39 pm (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 2009-05-06 05:22 pm (UTC)Is f real-valued? If so, I can imagine linear functions that produce a correlation between any pair in Z3.
<< but any two determine the third. >>
by drawing a straight line?
(no subject)
Date: 2009-05-06 09:02 pm (UTC)(no subject)
Date: 2009-05-06 11:15 pm (UTC)I think that there is some kind of completeness in the calculus of probability. Perhaps even an "easy-completeness", i.e. if there is no easy proof, then it's false ("easy" could be defined in terms of proof size).
It would be nice to have this as a (non-constructive) tool.