gusl: (Default)
[personal profile] gusl
how would you compute ?
This is relating to a common fallacy about probabilities.

(no subject)

Date: 2009-04-11 10:39 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] puellavulnerata.livejournal.com
Clearly, since n does not appear in the expression, it's 1-(x-1\over x)^x. :)

(no subject)

Date: 2009-04-11 10:46 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] gustavolacerda.livejournal.com
fixed. thx. :-)

(no subject)

Date: 2009-04-11 10:56 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] puellavulnerata.livejournal.com
Better. :)

Anyway, with an application of l'Hopital's rule it's easy to show that the limit is 1-1/e.

(no subject)

Date: 2009-04-11 11:00 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] gustavolacerda.livejournal.com
did you use pencil and paper?

(no subject)

Date: 2009-04-11 11:12 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] puellavulnerata.livejournal.com
Yeah. Move the 1- outside the limit, so you're looking for ((n-1)/n)^n as n approaches infinity. Then take logarithms to get an indeterminate form with zero times infinity inside the limit.

(no subject)

Date: 2009-04-11 11:33 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] gustavolacerda.livejournal.com
I have: ((n-1)/n)^n = exp{n log((n-1)/n)}

as n->infty, the n->infty and the log goes to 0... but I can't go further. I should study http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indeterminate_form#Evaluating_indeterminate_forms

(no subject)

Date: 2009-04-11 11:35 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] puellavulnerata.livejournal.com
Yeah. Now you pull the exp outside the limit, and rewrite it as n/(1/log(...)), and you have infinity over infinity.

(no subject)

Date: 2009-04-11 11:48 am (UTC)

(no subject)

Date: 2009-04-11 01:59 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] jcreed.livejournal.com
I got it by remembering the "compound interest" definition of the exponential

and manipulating the thing you gave until it resembled that enough.

(no subject)

Date: 2009-04-11 02:02 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] jcreed.livejournal.com
To be more specific: pull the 1- outside the limit, and then notice that (n-1)/n is the same thing as 1 - (1/n). This means my x in this case is -1, so I get 1-e^(-1).

My brain-registers fill up pretty fast, and even then I didn't feel the need for pen and paper for this way. I think had I done L'Hopital's I would have.

(no subject)

Date: 2009-04-12 04:49 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] rdore.livejournal.com
ditto.

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