gusl: (Default)
[personal profile] gusl
Isn't there a triangle-inequality result for correlation coefficients?

if CC(A,B)=.99 and CC(B,C)=.90 isn't there a lower bound on CC(A,C)? (.89?)

Likewise, if CC(A,B)=.99 and CC(B,C)=-.99, then there should be an upper bound on CC(A,C).


Is there a name for "1 - the correlation coefficient"?

(no subject)

Date: 2005-07-14 05:28 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] marknau.livejournal.com
In your second case, A could be the same as C, so the upper bound is 1. I have heard the term "correlation distance" used for 1 - r, but have no idea how standard that is.

(no subject)

Date: 2005-07-14 05:29 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] marknau.livejournal.com
Never mind, sorry, missed the minus sign on the second value.

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